CCIE SP 350-029 Question 31-60

CCIE SP Written Exam (Version 3.0)

Number: 350-029
Passing Score: 790
Time Limit: 120 min
File Version: 421Q+69

Question   1-30

Question 31-60

Question 61-90

Question 91-120

Question 121-150

Question 151-180

Question 181-210

Question 211-240

Question 241-270

Question 271-300

Question 301-330

Question 331-350

Question 351-380

Question 380-421

Addition 69 Questions (must do revision on these questions)

QUESTION 31

If two routers, both reachable from one another, originate functionally equivalent type 2 external LSAs (i.e. same destination, cost and non-zero forwarding

address). Which of the following statements would apply?

A. Only the LSA generated by the lowest RID ASBR will exist in the network

B. Two LSAs will exist in the network for this destination, but only the one generated by the highest RID ASBR will be used

C. Two LSAs will exist in the network for this destination, and both will be used

D. Only the LSA generated by the highest RID ASBR will exist in the network 

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32

The show ip ospf database external command displays information about which OSPF LSA type?

A. LSA type 1

B. LSA type 2

C. LSA type 7

D. LSA type 3

E. LSA type 9

F. LSA type 5

Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 33

Routes redistributed into an OSPF ASBR are which LSA type?

A. LSA type 6

B. LSA type 1

C. LSA type 2

D. LSA type 5

E. LSA type 3

F. LSA type 4

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 34

When the Cisco IOS OSPF command ip ospf dead-interval minimal hello-multiplier 5 is configured, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. OSPF hello interval is 5 seconds

B. OSPF hello interval is 1 second

C. OSPF dead interval is 1 second

D. OSPF dead interval is 5 seconds

E. OSPF dead interval is 20 seconds

F. OSPF hello interval is 0.2 second

Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 35

Which three statements about OSPF partial SPF are true? (Choose three)

A. If it is triggered by Type 4, all Type 4 LSAs that announce a certain ASBR and all Type 5 and 7 LSAs are processed

B. If it is triggered by Types 5 and 7, all Type 5 and 7 LSAs that contribute to a certain destination are processed.

C. If it is triggered by Type 2, all Type 2 LSAs that contribute to a certain destination are processed.

D. It is triggered by the change of Type 3, 4, 5, and 7 LSAs.

E. It is triggered by the change of Type 2, 3, 5, and 7 LSAs

Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 36

Which statement about OSPF ASBR summary LSA is true?

A. It is generated by an ASBR and indicates the reachability to an ABR located in another area.

B. It is generated by ABR and indicates the reachability to an ASBR located in another AS.

C. It is generated by ABR and indicates reachability to itself.

D. It is generated by ABR and indicates the reachability to an ASBR located in another area.

E. It is generated by an ASBR and indicates the reachability to an ABR.

Correct Answer: D

:QUESTION 37

Which two statements about OSPF IPv6 routing are true? (Choose two)

A. It requires OSPF version 3.

B. automatically detects neighbors over NHMA interfaces

C. It supports encryption using

D. It uses LSA type 9

E. It uses LSA type 8

Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 38

Which statement about OSPF authentication is true?

A. To enable OSPF authentication in a network, OSPF area 0 authentication must be enabled first.

B. The payload of OSPFv3 packets contains no authentication information.

C. OSPFv3 supports Advanced Encryption Standard

D. OSPFv3 uses router ID as a key to encrypt OSPF hello packets.

E. OSPF MD5 authentication uses TCP, and Plan Test authentication uses UDP.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 39

Which information is carried in the OSPFv3 intra-area Prefix LSA?

A. All link-local addresses

B. All IPv6 prefix and topology information that OSPFv2 included in Router LSA and Network LSA

C. List of options associated with the link to all other routers attached to the link

D. All prefix-specific information that OSPFv2 included in Router LSA and Network LSA

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 40

The OSPF External LSA for prefix x.x.x.x exists in the OSPF database, but the prefix is not installed in the routing table. Which are possible explanations?

Choose three)

A. ASBR originating the LSA is not reachable.

B. Route to the Forwarding Address is an internal OSPF route.

C. Inbound distribute-list is configured under the ospf process and it is denying x.x.x.x

D. Route to the ASBR does not follow the same path as the one to the Forwarding Address.

E. Route to the Forwarding Address is not an internal OSPF route.

Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 41

Select two valid administratively scoped multicast addresses in networks running Interior Gateway protocols like EIGRP and OSPF (Choose two).

A. 239.255.255.255

B. 224.0.0.10

C. 239.0.0.1

D. 224.0.0.5

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 42

Which two statements about EIGRP are true? (Choose two)

A. EIGRP supports VLSM, route summarization, and routing update authentication.

B. If the feasible successor has a higher advertised distance than the successor route, it becomes the primary route.

C. Passive routes are in the process of being calculated by DUAL.

D. EIGRP exchanges full routing table information with neighboring routers with every update.

E. A query process is used to discover a replacement for a failed route if a feasible successor is not identified from the current routing information.

Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 43

With EIGRP DUAL, a feasible successor is considered loop-free if which condition is true?

A. Its AD is equal to the metric of the successor

B. Its AD is less than the successor's FD

C. Its AD is equal to the successor's FD

D. Its AD is greater than the successor's FD

E. Its FD is equal to the metric of the successor

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 44

Regarding to EIGRP protocol, a "successor" is:

A. A neighbor that has met the feasibility condition

B. A neighbor that has met the feasibility condition and has the lowest cost path towards the destination

C. Any neighbor that is in the path towards the destination.

D. Any neighbor that is in the path towards the destination and whose reported distance equals the feasible distance.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 45

RIPv2 differs from RIPv1 in which three things? (Choose three).

A. it uses multicast address 224.0.0.10, instead of broadcast.

B. it uses multicast address 224.0.0.9, instead of broadcast.

C. it can use either multicast or broadcast addresses,instead of just broadcast.

D. it sends incremental updates,instead of periodic updates.

E. it is classless, instead of classfull

F. it supports authentication, and RIPv1 does not

Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 46

What does RPL stand for?

A. routing primary language

B. routing policy language

C. routing police language

D. routing program language

E. routing protocol language

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 47

In a frame, the MPLS label is imposed where?

A. Before the layer 2 header

B. Within the Layer 3 header

C. After the Layer3 header and before Layer2 header

D. After the Layer2 header and before Layer3 header

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 48

What is the action of "pop" in the context of MPLS switching?

A. It replaces the top label in the MPLS label stack with a set of labels.

B. It replaces the top label in the MPLS label stack with another value.

C. It adds a top label in MPLS label stack.

D. It removes the top label in the MPLS label stack.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 49

Which four of these are MPLS label header fields? (Choose four.)

A. Label

B. VPI VCI

C. EXP

D. TTL

E. FCS

F. S flag

Correct Answer: ACDF

QUESTION 50

Based on the following output in a router A running LDP, which statement is true?

ROUTER-A#show mpls ldp bindings 50.0.0.1 32

lib entry: 50.0.0.1/32, rev 5 local bindinG. label: imp-null remote bindinG. lsr: 50.0.0.4:0, label: 16

A. None of the above.

B. The IP address 50.0.0.1/32 is assigned to the non-directly connected LDP neighbor, 50.0.0.4.

C. The IP address 50.0.0.1/32 is assigned to one of its own interfaces.

D. The IP address 50.0.0.1/32 is assigned to its directly connected LDP neighbor, 50.0.0.4.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 51

Which three statements about MPLS Label Distribution Protocol (LDP) are valid?

A. LDP hello packets are sent to UDP port 646

B. LDP hello packets are sent to TCP port 711

C. LDP sessions are TCP sessions to port 646

D. LDP sessions are TCP sessions to port 711

E. LDP establishes a peer relationship with another router that must be directly attached.

F. LDP can establishes a peer relationship with another router that is not directly attached

Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 52

Which option describes the incorrect usage of the Label Distribution method?

A. MP-BGP is used for label distribution for VPN customer routes.

B. LDP is primarily used in internal networks of MPLS-VPN providers.

C. MP-BGP is used for label distribution in MPLS Traffic Engineered networks.

D. Directed LDP is used for label distribution in L2-VPN Attachement Circuits.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 53

Which four services use the inner labels of an MPLS label stack? (Choose four)

A. MPLS VPN

B. switching path in MPLS core

C. Cisco MPLS Traffic Engineering and Fast Reroute

D. MPLS over ATM

E. VPN over Traffic Engineering core

F. any transport over MPLS

Correct Answer: ACEF

QUESTION 54

Which 4 statements regarding MPLS Label Stack Encoding is true?

A. A value of 4 represents the "Implicit NULL Label."

B. A value of 0 represents the "IPv4 Explicit NULL Label."

C. A value of 1 represents the "Router Alert Label".

D. A value of 2 represents the "IPv6 Explicit NULL Label"

E. A value of 1 represents the "IPv1 Explicit NULL Label"

F. A value of 3 represents the "Implicit NULL Label"

Correct Answer: BCDF

QUESTION 55

The mechanisms for distributing LDP are:

A. CEF and the FIB table

B. UDP and IP

C. A and B

D. RSVP and CEF

E. LDP and RSVP

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 56

Based on the following output in R1, which statement is truE.

R1#show mpls forwarding-table 50.0.0.3 detail Local Outgoing Prefix Bytes Label Outgoing Next Hop Label Label or Tunnel Id Switched interface 19 17

50.0.0.3/32 0 Et0/0 192.168.0.14

A. If a labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 17, all the labels will be removed and a clear IP packet is sent to Next Hop 192.168.0.14 on Ethernet 0/0.

B. If a labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 17, the label is replaced with label 19 and the packet is sent out on the Ethernet 0/0 interface.

C. If a labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 19, the label is replaced with label 17 and the packet is sent out on the Ethernet 0/1 interface.

D. If a labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 19, the label is replaced with label 17 and the packet is sent out on the Ethernet 0/0 interface.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 57

What is the encapsulation mode for MPLS running on Ethernet?

A. Transparent mode.

B. Frame mode

C. Channel mode

D. Packet mode.

E. Tunnel mode.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 58

What IOS commands display MPLS label mapping on an LSR?

A. Show mpls ldp parameters

B. Show mpls ldp bindings

C. Show mpls forwading-table

D. Show mpls ldp discovery

E. Show mpls ldp neighbor detail

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 59

Forwarding Equivalence Class (FEC) corresponds to which four of these? (Choose four).

A. Layer 2 circuits (ATM, FR, PPP, HDLC, Ethernet

B. Groups of addresses/sites-VPN

C. IPSEC Encryption Algorithm

D. A bridge/switch instance-VSI

E. Tunnel interface-traffic engineering

Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 60

Which two statements about forwarding equivalence class (FEC) are true? (Choose two)

A. FEC might correspond to a destination IP subnet, but it might also correspond to any traffic class that the edge LSR considers significant.

B. FEC is a group of IP packets that is forwarded over a different path, but with the same forwarding treatment.

C. FEC is a group of IP packets that is forwarded over the same path, and with the same forwarding treatment.

D. FEC is a group of IP packets that is forwarded over a different path, but with the different forwarding treatment.

E. FEC is a group of IP packets that is forwarded over the same path, but with a different forwarding treatment.

Correct Answer: AC

Question   1-30

Question 31-60

Question 61-90

Question 91-120

Question 121-150

Question 151-180

Question 181-210

Question 211-240

Question 241-270

Question 271-300

Question 301-330

Question 331-350

Question 351-380

Question 380-421

Addition 69 Questions (must do revision on these questions)

CCIE SP 350-029 Question 1 -30

CCIE SP Written Exam (Version 3.0)

Number: 350-029
Passing Score: 790
Time Limit: 120 min
File Version: 421Q+69

Question   1-30

Question 31-60

Question 61-90

Question 91-120

Question 121-150

Question 151-180

Question 181-210

Question 211-240

Question 241-270

Question 271-300

Question 301-330

Question 331-350

Question 351-380

Question 380-421

Addition 69 Questions (must do revision on these questions)

QUESTION 1
Which three modes are the operating of HDLC? (Choose three)
A. asynchronous balanced mode (ABM)
B. normal response mode (NRM)
C. normal peer mode (NPM)
D. asynchronous client mode (ACM)
E. asynchronous response mode (ARM)










Correct Answer: ABE



HDLC Operational Modes
HDLC offers three different modes of operation. These three modes of operations are:

Normal Response Mode(NRM)
Asynchronous Response Mode(ARM)
Asynchronous Balanced Mode(ABM)


Normal Response Mode

This is the mode in which the primary station initiates transfers to the secondary station. The secondary station can only transmit a response when, and only when, it is instructed to do so by the primary station. In other words, the secondary station must receive explicit permission from the primary station to transfer a response. After receiving permission from the primary station, the secondary station initiates it's transmission. This transmission from the secondary station to the primary station may be much more than just an acknowledgment of a frame. It may in fact be more than one information frame. Once the last frame is transmitted by the secondary station, it must wait once again from explicit permission to transfer anything, from the primary station. Normal Response Mode is only used within an unbalanced configuration.


Asynchronous Response Mode

In this mode, the primary station doesn't initiate transfers to the secondary station. In fact, the secondary station does not have to wait to receive explicit permission from the primary station to transfer any frames. The frames may be more than just acknowledgment frames. They may contain data, or control information regarding the status of the secondary station. This mode can reduce overhead on the link, as no frames need to be transferred in order to give the secondary station permission to initiate a transfer. However some limitations do exist. Due to the fact that this mode is Asynchronous, the secondary station must wait until it detects and idle channel before it can transfer any frames. This is when the ARM link is operating at half-duplex. If the ARM link is operating at full-duplex, the secondary station can transmit at any time. In this mode, the primary station still retains responsibility for error recovery, link setup, and link disconnection.


Asynchronous Balanced Mode

This mode uses combined stations. There is no need for permission on the part of any station in this mode. This is because combined stations do not require any sort of instructions to perform any task on the link.
Normal Response Mode is used most frequently in multi-point lines, where the primary station controls the link. Asynchronous Response Mode is better for point to point links, as it reduces overhead. Asynchronous Balanced Mode is not used widely today.
The "asynchronous" in both ARM and ABM does not refer to the format of the data on the link. It refers to the fact that any given station can transfer frames without explicit permission or instruction from any other station.



QUESTION 2

IP over DWDM management models (Choose two.)
A. Segmented Management
B. Integrated Management
C. Virtual Transponder
D. Traffic Management








Correct Answer: AB



QUESTION 3
Which three of these are optical channel data unit (ODU) overhead fields? (Choose three)
A. general communication channel 0 (GCC0)
B. section monitoring
C. reserved (RES)
D. general communication channels 1 and 2 (GCC1 GCC2)
E. tandem connection monitoring activation deactivation (TCM ACT)










Correct Answer: CDE




QUESTION 4
What is one of the primary overhead fields associated with the Optical Payload Unit (OPU)?
A. path monitoring
B. tandem connection monitoring activation deactivation (TCM ACT)
C. Payload Structure Identifier (PSI)
D. multiframe alignment signal (MFAS)
E. section monitoring








Correct Answer: C





QUESTION 5
In optical channel transport unit overhead (OTU OH), what are general communication channels 1 and 2 (GCC1/GCC2) used for?
A. for trail trace identification
B. as the backward defect indicator
C. to transmit information between OTU termination points
D. to extend command and management functions over several frames
E. General communication channels 1 and 2 (GCC1/GCC2) do not belong to OTU OH.









Correct Answer: E





QUESTION 6
What is the minimum hardware configuration of the multishelf Cisco CRS-1 system?
A. One route processor (RP) card and one modular services card (MSC)
B. One distributed route processor (DRP) and one S13 fabric card (SFC)
C. One line card chassis (LCC) and one fabric card chassis (FCC)
D. One route processor (RP) and one fabric card chassis (FCC)
E. One line card chassis (LCC) and one S13 fabric card (SFC)










Correct Answer: C





QUESTION 7
Cisco IOS XR software is partitioned into three planes: control, data, and management. Which three of these belong to the data plane? (Choose three.)
A. XML
B. RIB
C. FIB
D. QoS
E. PFI











Correct Answer: CDE


QUESTION 8
Which statement about Software Maintenance Upgrade is true?
A. CRS-1 SMU can be applied to a different platform, and vice versa.
B. SMU is an executable code for running a process or libraries that are shared between the different processes.
C. SMUs for each release are individually downloadable from Cisco.com and come in the form of a tar ball.
D. SMUs provide software fixes for critical network down and qualification blocking issues.Therefore, every software defect has a corresponding SMU.
E. SMUs are release-specific. If an issue affects multiple platforms or releases, an SMU is built separately for each release and each platform.









Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 9
Cisco IOS XR has implemented a nonstop routing feature so that when RP failover occurs, the routing information can be recovered locally. Which protocol does
not support the NSR feature?
A. OSPF
B. LDP
C. BGP
D. IS-IS
E. RSVP











Correct Answer: E



QUESTION 10
Which three components are included in the Cisco IOS XR infrastructure? (Choose three.)
A. modular line cards
B. shelf controllers
C. route processors
D. service processors
E. distributed service cards










Correct Answer: BCD



QUESTION 11
All secure domain routers (SDRs) have shared attribute and resources. Which three resources are shared all SDRs? (Choose three.)
A. privilege-level configuration
B. fabric cards
C. SNMP traps
D. admin-level configuration
E. exec-level configuration










Correct Answer: BCD


:QUESTION 12
Which three statements about the secure domain router are true? (Choose three.)
A. The logical router can span across chassis.
B. The fabric and system controller module are shared by all logical routers.
C. Each logical router has a distinct fabric and system controller module
D. The logical router can share a route processor
E. The logical router cannot share a route processor.










Correct Answer: ABE



QUESTION 13
There are two cabling schemes to choose from when implementing a Cisco CRS-1 multi shelf system: single module cabling and multi module cabling. What is the
maximum capacity of the LCCs that are supported in multi module cabling?
A. 9 LCCs
B. 7 LCCs
C. 10 LCCs
D. 6 LCCs
E. 8 LCCs









Correct Answer: A



QUESTION 14
Process-level redundancy is implemented by a system manager process that creates the standby process. What two functions are provided by the system-level
process called Qnet Symlink Manager (QSM)? (Choose two.)
A. backing up the information for the broken connections
B. provides common information for connecting processes and services
C. detection of a failed connection
D. provides an abstract name for a process or service
E. distribution of symbolic link information









Correct Answer: DE




:QUESTION 15
When will the primary processor core dump run in case of a switchover?
A. never takes place
B. periodically
C. during switchover
D. after switchover
E. before switchover










Correct Answer: D



QUESTION 16
CRS-1 single shelf maximum capacities?
A. 320 Gbit/s
B. 640 Gbit/s
C. 1.2 Tbit/s
D. 92 Tbit/s










Correct Answer: C



QUESTION 17
Which of the following processes in IOS XR run exclusively on the Route Processor? (Choose two.)
A. wdsysmon
B. mpls_idp
C. sysmgr
D. gsp
E. bgp










Correct Answer: BE




QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.

Which router is the DIS?

A. router-22

B. router-44

C. router-33 and router-44

D. router-11

E. router-33

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 19

What three major tasks are performed by a Designated Intermediate System in an ISIS pseudonode

environment? (Choose three.)

A. updating the pseudonode LSP

B. maintaining pseudonode link-state information

C. creating the pseudonode LSP

D. flooding LSPs over the LAN

E. election of the pseudonode

Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 20

What bit should be set in the link state PDUs in an IS-IS level-1-2 router to indicate that they are a potential exit point out of the area?

A. ATT (Attached) bit

B. ABR (Area Border Rorter) bit

C. PN (Pseudonode) bit

D. P (Partition) bit

E. Down bit

F. IS-Type bit

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21

The Attribute field within the IS-IS LSP header contains which of the following flags? (Choose four)

A. IS-Type

B. Overload (LSPDBOL)

C. Pseudonode (PN)

D. Attached (ATT)

E. Fragment (Frag-Nr)

F. Partition (P)

Correct Answer: ABDF

QUESTION 22

Refer to the exhibit. Your customer has enabled IPv6 and IPv4 on routers R1 and R2, both running ISIS routing protocol, and they can no longer reach R3 network

172.26.15.0/24 (R3 does not enable IPv6, enables IPv4 only). Which two steps should be taken to restore reach ability to R3? (Choose two.)

A. Enable OSPFv3 to support IPv4 and IPv6 simultaneously.

B. Configure static routes to all unreachable networks and redistribute to IS-IS.

C. Create an IPv6 tunnel from R2 to R3.

D. Transition to IS-IS Multiple Topology Mode on R3.

E. Enable wide metrics.

F. Transition to IS-IS Multiple Topology Mode on R1 and R2.

Correct Answer: EF

QUESTION 23

What ISIS TLVs are used to support MPLS Traffic Engineering? (Choose three).

A. Extended IS neighbor TLV #22

B. Extended IS name TLV #137

C. Extended IS resource TLV #138

D. Extended IS reachability TLV #135

E. Router ID TLV #134

Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 24

How do routers in an IS-IS Level-1 domain exit to reach other Level-1 domains? (Choose two.)

A. Level-1 routers use default routes announced by Level-2 routers in Level-1 domain

B. Level-1 routers use default routes installed based on ATT bit (Attach Bit) in announcements from Level-1-2 router

C. Level-1 routers use specific routes, for other Level-1 domain, announced by Level-1-2 router by route leaking feature of Cisco IOS

D. Level-1 routers use specific routes, for other Level-1 domain, announced by Level-2 router by route-leaking feature of Cisco IOS

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 25

In the IS-IS Designated Intermediate System (DIS) election process, which criteria is used for DIS selection?

A. highest router ID first, then highest priority

B. highest MAC address first, then highest priority

C. highest router ID first, then highest MAC address

D. highest priority first, then highest router ID

E. highest priority first, then highest MAC address

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 26

What is periodically multicasted (every 10 seconds) by the DIS on a LAN to ensure IS-IS Link State Database accuracy?

A. IIH

B. LSP

C. CSNP

D. ISH

E. PSNP

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27

Which two statements regarding the IS-IS DIS election process are true? (Choose two.)

A. L1 routers on a broadcast network only establish adjacencies with the DIS.

B. If the DIS becomes unavailable the backup DIS is promoted to DIS.

C. Adding a router with a higher priority than the current DIS will result in the new router becoming DIS.

D. Separate L1 and L2 election processes are held on a brodcast network.

E. A priority of 0 will prevent a router from becoming a DIS.

F. If there is a tie based on priority, the router whose attached interface has the lowest MAC address becomes the DIS.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 28

What is the importance of using Virtual Output Queues on ingress Line Cards in a high-end router?

A. Increases forwarding performance

B. Simplifies configuration

C. Prevents head-of-line blocking

D. Uses less memory

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29

What is the default SPF throttle timer in OSPF?

A. 5s

B. 10ms

C. 0ms

D. 30s

E. 1s

F. 500ms

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30

Which OSPF LSA is used to support MPLS Traffic-Engineering?

A. NSSA LSA (Type 7)

B. Opaque LSA (Type 11)

C. Opaque LSA (Type 9)

D. Opaque LSA (Type 10)

E. External LSA (Type 5)

Correct Answer: D

Question   1-30

Question 31-60

Question 61-90

Question 91-120

Question 121-150

Question 151-180

Question 181-210

Question 211-240

Question 241-270

Question 271-300

Question 301-330

Question 331-350

Question 351-380

Question 380-421

Addition 69 Questions (must do revision on these questions)